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Where in the Bible (Gospels) did Jesus say he was God? |
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In no part of the Gospels (the New Testament part of the Bible) is there any direct reference by Jesus claiming himself as God. |
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However, in all surviving translations of the accepted Gospels of the Bible from at least the Middle Ages, there are numerous translated passages that infer absolute divinity to Jesus. But what is even more compelling is that the title "Son of God" seems to have been used in connection to him from the beginning. |
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And so it is that to be a Christian today is to be a believer that Jesus is both the Christ (Messiah) foretold in the Old Testament and the" Son of God". |
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The first thing a reader needs to understand is that the title "Son of God" was not a title first created by Jesus, nor was first ever used by Jesus. If all the libraries of the ancient world hadn't been deliberately burnt to the ground. If every book found by church authorities up until the 17th century hadn't been burnt or hidden, then the understanding of the historic context of the title "Son of God" would be common knowledge by every person living today. |
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In the first instance, the title "Son of God" was given to religious figures considered as saviours by their various faiths. This tradition goes as far back as 2,000 years before the birth of Jesus. |
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| Official Title known as "The Son of God" |
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Saviour/God |
Culture/Religion |
Year of Origin |
| Hesus |
Druid |
2200 BCE |
| Baal |
Syria |
2100 BCE |
| Attis |
Turkey/Anatolia |
2100 BCE |
| Tammuz |
Syria |
2000 BCE |
| Shamgar |
Mari, Syria |
2000 BCE |
| Horus |
Egypt |
1900 BCE |
| Adad |
Assyria |
1850 BCE |
| Mithra |
Persia/Babylon |
1650 BCE |
| Dionysus |
Phoenicia/Syria |
1500 BCE |
| Krishna |
Hindu |
1140 BCE |
| Heracles/Hercules |
Greece |
690 BCE |
| Buddha |
India |
620 BCE |
| Prometheus |
Greece |
580 BCE |
| Odin |
Scandanavia |
500 BCE |
| Bacchus |
Rome |
500 BCE |
| Quetzalcoatl |
Mexico, Hopi |
400 BCE |
| Adonis |
Greece |
400 BCE |
| Indra |
Tibet |
350 BCE |
| Christos |
Hellenism |
250 BCE |
| Jesus |
Christianity |
44 CE |
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In the second instance, the title "Son of God" was the official title given to the Pharaoh of Egypt and later taken firstly by Alexander the Great and then by the Roman Emperors upon conquering Egypt. |
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As you can see by the list, Judaism is unique in not having a history of saviours known as the "Son of God", whereas the Syrian and Anatolian regions from which the Sadducee families such as Paul of Tarsus (St. Paul) had several. |
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So for a person, supposedly a Jew to claim to be "Son of God" would be quite an alien concept, and unlikely to have evoked great anger, mainly because such as title in relation to mythical Gods would have been seen as inferior by the ruling Sadducee Priests and Pharisee Scholars compared to their "historic" scriptures. |
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Instead, there appears a number of primary sources pointing to the controversial theory that Moses was in a mythical figure created from the real story of Akhenaten and that the Essenes considered their blood ancestry to be directly related to Pharaoh Akhenaten. Certainly, the Sadducee High Priests were incensed by the claim of the title of Jesus being "Son of God", having Essene blood through his mother Mary. |
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So it is quite possible that Jesus did claim this title during his lifetime. However, not as a living mythical God of the Syrian and other ancient religious traditions, but as a living embodiment of the beliefs of the Essenes who claimed the Old Testament was merely a book of fables. For the only way that a son of both Sadducee noble blood and Essene noble blood could be Egyptian Pharaoh is if Akhenaten really was Moses and the whole history of the Bible was an elaborate set of lies. |
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In contrast, the early christian church leaders following their founder Paul (St. Paul) went out of their way to eliminate any discussion that Jesus could have been anointed Pharaoh during his travels, even creating a whole alternate life, history and justification for the use of this title- as the "only true Son of God". |
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Now that would definately have been a "red flag" the Sadducees, so much so that they would have been in a frenzy looking for an excuse to shut such a person up from assassination to false charges to get the Romans involved. |
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Sadly due to the often poor and misleading religious education provided to many Christians, a frequent error is made in believing the Jesus was handed to the Romans because of such blasphemy. |
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The absolute and undeniable fact remains that according to Jewish law, if Jesus had ever uttered, or implied such a claim even once leading up to his interrogation, trial and eventual execution then the High Priests and Pharisees would not needed to have handed him to the Romans, but simply put him to death under Jewish law immediately. |
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A feeble counter argument is sometimes made to this point in saying that somehow the Jewish hierarchy were “afraid” of the potential for trouble and did not want blood on their hands. Such arguments are hardly worth a serious response as the whole storyline around the betrayal and arrest and trial of Jesus in all four Gospels makes it abundantly clear there was no mass uprising of the population or riots on his arrest, but that he alone faced the horror of the passion, without one disciple offering his life to save him. |
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Secondly, it is clear by the religious leaders sending Jesus both the Herod and to Pilate and even going so far as to bribe a mob to call for the release of a known criminal and murder (Barabbas) over Jesus they didn't fear him, only how to kill him without making him a martyr. |
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This is why subsequent liberal creative translations of the Gospels over the millennia cannot be fully trusted on this point, as they fly in the face of the historic truth of the time. The whole reason the Jewish priests handed Jesus across to the Romans in the first place was that they could not find a single valid reason under Jewish law to have him put to death. That in itself is as clear a marker as any that they struggled to find anything against Jesus. |
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Secondly, as the stories imply, Jesus must have been a full Roman citizen due to his noble birth. |
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In contrast, the phrase “Son of Man” was also a common feature of Judaic scripture and was a title bestowed on many of the great prophets. The Dead Sea Scrolls from the same period of time as the life of Jesus show this Esscene community also used this title “son of man” extensively. |
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While we may never know if the earliest of Gospels used this title on jesus, only to see it re-written into the great belief of Jesus being the only Son of God we may never know. What is certain is that such dogma has become an essential part of being Christian and good people are prepared to fight to the death to defend such held beliefs. |
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